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Foxy2600

VAR

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VAR is used to overturn ‘clear and obvious errors’.

On field, Mr ‘man of the moment’ Oliver gave the goal so saw no foul or infringement in the build up.

Was it a clear and obvious foul? Compared to every other game and numerous other similar incidents (Pukki on Sunday), it could be argued either way. Therefore the original decision was not a clear and obvious error.

Was Cavani going to get anywhere near the ball had he not been ‘fouled’?

Does the 3 and a half minutes it took to make a decision indicate it was clearly an error in the original decision?

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